Why I Am King James Only

Here is a great documentary explaining the majority of the reason I’m King James only. There is a New World Order/Satanic agenda to destroy and muddy the crystal clear waters of God’s word. Give it a watch and see what you think..

Support the Film makers!
http://www.framingtheworld.com

I will be doing an even further breakdown with my thoughts and opinions.

Please leave your thoughts or comments below!
If you wish to contact me : mindfulofthetruth@gmail.com

In Christ Jesus, Kyle Schumacher

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5 thoughts on “Why I Am King James Only

  1. Hello Kyle

    I put this together about two years ago. I was dealing with a man that could not understand what I was saying because we used differing versions of Scripture

    All of the following is from the KJV.

    IF you do not use the King James version, you are not able to get much more than the “Plan of Salvation”. Just look at what was done with this one scripture!
    PROVERBS 18:1-2 ”Through desire a man, having separated himself, seeketh and intermeddleth with all wisdom. A fool hath no delight in understanding, but that his heart may discover itself”. KJV
    PROVERBS 18:1-2 A man who isolates himself seeks his own desire; He rages against all wise judgment. A fool has no delight in understanding, But in expressing his own heart. New King James Version (NKJV)
    The KJV is what the ORIGINAL translation says. The NKJV watered down and perverted the word of TRUTH!

    The topic of “Bible inerrancy” came up in MY world in the mid 1980′s. Are you aware of the FACT that True Bible Scholars and Theologians debated the issue or not. Most came to the conclusion that ALL of the many Versions of the Bible had mistranslated/ADDED/OMITTED words in them BUT they ALL agreed that Gods Plan for Salvation was to be found in them ALL The ADULTS that are interested will DO the research. The willing IGNORant Proverbs 18:2 KJV “FOOLS” will remain in their IGNORance. Here are a few things that are mistranslated/ADDED/OMITTED.
    http://www.overlordsofchaos.com/html/origin_of_the_word_jew.html
    I provided the FACTS (with links to the origin) concerning the word …”JEW”… at my site and in the link above .
    I also provided the FACTS from the original TEXT as it was translated into English from the “Strong’s Concordenance” pre-1980, at the article, “The SYNAGOGUE Of SATAN: EDOMS PLAYGROUND” where I said, “Lets examine the word JEW”. I provided the correct translations and scriptures as they were used. >>> The SYNAGOGUE Of SATAN: EDOMS Playground
    http://edomsthorn.wordpress.com/2014/01/28/the-synagogue-of-satan-edoms-playground/

    The meaning for the words JUDAH/Judahite and JUDEAN have been “altered” to “FIT” the modern misuse of the word JEW. Jew is the ‘bastardization’ of the word JUDAH. The simple addition of the word, ‘JEWISH’ is a perversion of the Original TEXT. The addition and use of the word ‘JEW’ is for confusion and deception, as with word GENTILE!

    Hebrew word is; …”S.C. 3063 “Yehuwdah” …”The name of Five Israeli Also of the tribe descended from the first, and of its territory: Judah”…
    S.C. 3064 “Yehuwdiy ‘patron from 3063; a Jehudite (i.e. Judaite or Jew), or desc. of Jehudah (i.e. Judah):-Jew”…

    Keep in mind that in the Old Testament of the KJV Bible, the name YHWH (Yahweh) has been omitted over 6,000 times and substituted with the title “the Lord”.
    In the New Testament. The word Jew mentioned in. John 4:22″ …for Salvation is of the Jews”. is RIGHTLY translated from the GREEK S.C. 2453 it is; “Ioudaios”, pronounced ee-oo-dah-yos and means “JUDEAN; AS A COUNTRY i.e.belonging to Judea”
    >>> ‘FROM’<< S.C. 2448 and 2455″…. It appears that the word JEW in John 4:22 was NOT “JEW” and should have been “JUDAHITE(S)”
    THAT is ALL that is found in the Strong’s Concordance from 1980. Nothing omitted and nothing added!

    As used in Matthew 2:6 S.C. 2448 “Iouda” Judah
    As used in Hebrews 7:14 S.C. 2455 “Ioudas” Judah or Judas
    In Zechariah 8:23 “Thus saith the Lord of hosts; In those days it shall come to pass, that ten men shall take hold out of all languages of the nations, even shall take hold of the skirt of him that is a Jew, saying, We will go with you: for we have heard that God is with you.” …” it is S.C. 376 + 3064 Which is “Man” of “Judah”…

    The word “ISRAEL” occurs 2568 times in 2294 verses in the KJV, and not one time is ISRAEL called “JEW” The Book of Romans was about Gods love for “ISRAEL” for the most part, and the word “JEW” is used 10 times there, and NOT once for ISRAEL!

    Now that is the CORRECT Translation for those that care about the truth!
    GENTILE: That word Gentile, defied translation? Does a Latin word “Gentile”, belong in a English translation of a Hebrew and Greek TEXT? Gentile is found in both the Old and New Testament. THOSE words, Gentile and Jew are there for the purpose of DEPICTION , CONFUSION!
    “GENTILE”: Hebrew S.C. 1471 gowy/goy “a foreign nation or Nation, People” ALSO “troop of animals”… Note: GOY is what the so called JEWS call us using the ANIMALS definition.
    Greek S.C. 1484 ethnos “Nation, People”. Note: “ethnos” is where we get “ETHNIC”
    Based on what I know about EDOM and the Rothschillds creation, The ILLUMINATI and their ownership and control of the majority of the Publishing House’s and infiltration of the Seminaries, that is how we have the word JEW in our Bibles.

    Deuteronomy 5:17 “Thou shalt not kill”. comes from the Hebrew …”ratsach”… S.C.7523 MOST causal Bible students understand that the CORRECT translation is …”MURDER”…

    The word “Easter” in ACTS 12:4 KJV comes from the Greek …”pascha”… S.C.3957 that means …”PASSOVER”… Easter is found in the KJV only. Why?

    AND HERE is one that I found in the early 1980’s, because I have known since the third grade that “WORDS HAVE MEANINGS” I wanted to know what “THEOPHILUS” meant. I had not heard any explaination for it at that time.

    In Luke 1:3 and Acts 1:1, LUKE used the “WORD”, “THEOPHILUS” Greek …”Theophilos’… From(on-line) S.C. 2321 …”friend of God”… ALSO …”the person to whom Luke addressed his Gospel and the book of Acts”… BUT there is no reason to believe that LUKE was addressing any one person. I believe that was LUKES way of addressing the CHURCH.

    In my hard copy from 1980 it says nothing about a “person” it ADDS that it is from, …”Themellos” S.C. 2310 Greek …”something put down, i.e. a substruction (of a building, ect.) (lit. or fig.):-foundation.
    So “THEOPHILUS” should read as, “FRIEND Of God”

    You have been doing a great work here Kyle. God Bless you.

    Liked by 2 people

  2. Kyle-

    I see that you young men are very deeply into the Word, and commend you for it. I often wish that I was fluent in ancient Hebrew and Greek.

    Like

  3. Thank you for this important message, it is important to always be sure of the truth, and have no doubts, you have strengthened my confidence, and erased any doubt that may have been trying to germinate in my heart, I stand sure now and always will be, thank you all

    Like

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